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Getty Images Letter Forum / Re: Possible reasons for class action suit against Getty in the USA
« on: July 26, 2012, 02:03:37 PM »
Getty can still sue in the US even if the agreement is "non-exclusive", so long as there's one of the Section 106 stipulations in the agreement.
"Since the right to sue is not one of the exclusive rights, transfer solely of the right to sue does not confer standing on the assignee.... One can only obtain a right to sue on a copyright if the party also obtains one of the exclusive rights in the copyright... Further, to obtain a right to sue for past infringement, that right must be expressly stated in the assignment."
Eden Toys, Inc. v. Florelee Undergarment Co.
Let me translate this for you, so that you can understand it better:
So long as one of the "exclusive rights" in Section 106 are included in the "assignment" (meaning the non-exclusive agreement), then the assignee (holder of the non-exclusive agreement) has the right to sue.
I've posted actual case law precident for you. You still cannot seem to grasp it, and your only argument seems to be "I disagree with US case law".
You are AGAIN assuming that when a plaintiff loses a case, they never had the right to sue in the first place. That is quite incorrect.
You brought up Getty vs. Advernet. Getty lost on the standing to collect monies. But, they didn't lose on the "right to sue" argument.
I don't think that the "right to sue" was ever brought up. Additionally, the "right to sue" is the same as "standing to sue".
Furthermore, Getty had nothing to do with Marots' actions. So, this changes nothing in case of Getty.
S.G.
"Since the right to sue is not one of the exclusive rights, transfer solely of the right to sue does not confer standing on the assignee.... One can only obtain a right to sue on a copyright if the party also obtains one of the exclusive rights in the copyright... Further, to obtain a right to sue for past infringement, that right must be expressly stated in the assignment."
Eden Toys, Inc. v. Florelee Undergarment Co.
Let me translate this for you, so that you can understand it better:
So long as one of the "exclusive rights" in Section 106 are included in the "assignment" (meaning the non-exclusive agreement), then the assignee (holder of the non-exclusive agreement) has the right to sue.
I've posted actual case law precident for you. You still cannot seem to grasp it, and your only argument seems to be "I disagree with US case law".
You are AGAIN assuming that when a plaintiff loses a case, they never had the right to sue in the first place. That is quite incorrect.
You brought up Getty vs. Advernet. Getty lost on the standing to collect monies. But, they didn't lose on the "right to sue" argument.
I don't think that the "right to sue" was ever brought up. Additionally, the "right to sue" is the same as "standing to sue".
Furthermore, Getty had nothing to do with Marots' actions. So, this changes nothing in case of Getty.
S.G.